06-27-2014 05:56 AM
I have an ERPoE of which eth0 is connected to my ISP. As of next week, I'll receive two VLANs on my eth0, 4 and 34, so I have to configure the two VLANs on eth0. I guess the best thing to do is to use eth1 for VLAN 4 traffic (TV) and eth2-4 for VLAN 34 traffic (regular Internet). The point that is currently still unclear to me is how I can make sure that traffic to eth2-4 is untagged, while traffic to eth1 remains tagged (the traffic will go over a subsequent VLAN trunk between managed switches). How can I indicate this difference in tag handling using the CLI?
06-27-2014 07:30 AM
You do not have to use the VLAN on the LAN. You can set that up however you want. What you have to make sure you do is to route the LAN traffic to the appropriate IP on the WAN.
All a VLAN does is create two Virtual Local Area Networks (aka VLAN). A network is a network is a network. You ROUTE traffic between networks. This is what a router does.
Now, from seeing other posts using these same VLAN numbers one is TV service I think and the other is the internet service. If the TV set top box is also configure to VLAN 34 (or 4) then yes you will need to have the same VLAN setup on the LAN side for it to talk. But if it just pulls an IP on your LAN, then you jsut need to route that IP to the VLAN and be done.
06-27-2014 08:24 AM
I'm completely familiar with the concept of VLANs. I mean, in my current setup I already have a multi-VLAN setup at home. However, what is not clear to me is how I, in terms of configuration/CLI commands, can make sure that traffic on arriving on eth0.4 (TV) leaves my ER tagged (on eth1), while traffic arriving on eth0.34 (regular Internet) leaves my ER untagged on switch0. Could you maybe provide a configuration example?